- Joined
- Jan 1, 2011
- Sythe Gold
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Another potential issue that I didn't mention in that post, although talked about in subsequent posts, is whether your conduct (whatever it was) that resulted in you no longer being supplied by that supplier gives rise to a right to terminate on Dave's part. In order to give rise to a right to terminate, it must be considered a term in the contract (express or implied). I am assuming it is not express (you guys said something like if you blackmail x I can use him as a supplier), so it would have to be implied. If I remember correctly, there are differing opinions on the tests to be applied depending on the jurisdiction you're from, but the main factor is whether it 'goes without saying', and is 'reasonable' (a good test for this is if a bystander suggested you guys make that an express term, would you both agree).Thank you for your input.
The guy Dave is currently using for his business was my main supplier during the 2 months that Dave was working with me. However the week before Dave started using him he stopped supplying for a while and he offered a different technique to keep us safe. In my opinion he's still the supplier I did not want him to use.
Roary told me Dave is allowed to use him but he has to stop using him when he starts supplying again (he'll start supplying again soon) IMO Dave should have never accepted any deals from him.
If we can answer yes to both those questions, then that means it was an implied term of the contract that your conduct breach, and would give rise to a right to terminate on the part of Dave. This means that after that point, your agreement was no more, so Dave would have been allowed to deal with that supplier. The only potential minor issue here is did Dave elect to terminate the contract, or affirm it (give you a second change). As far as I know, Dave contacted the supplier soon after, so to me it indicates that he did elect to terminate the contract.
So, the main question is, was there was an implied term in the contract, that, if it existed, your conduct would have breached. A simple test, as above, whether if a bystander suggested you guys make the implied term an express term, that you both would have agreed.
As for what Dave ought to do, it seems that since he is no longer allowed to deal with that supplier (after he begins to resume supplying), that some part of your agreement is being honoured. As for his conduct within those 2 months, I think he may have thought that the deal was off after your conduct with the supplier, and his primary intention was to to make amends with the supplier (he may have also wanted to take your place, or maybe the supplier made that offer to him, that part is only speculation). However his actions don't seem entirely out of line, given your conduct (blackmail as far as I'm aware), and his expectations of the agreement you two originally had.
EDIT: I think the misunderstanding, and your frustration is simply this. You would not have entered into the agreement with Dave in the first place if there was any circumstance that Dave could have 'taken' your supplier in the future, you might have thought that even with your actions, Dave wasn't allowed to 'take' your supplier per the agreement. Dave however, might have had the understanding that under such extreme circumstances, he was allowed to, and did; he also, like you, may not have entered into the agreement if such conduct would not allow him to terminate the agreement.






































