This is some bullshit that crossed my mind while I was thinking about marketing.
So let's say that the owner of Store A is selling an item at a higher price than Store B, and he knows that the Store B's price is cheaper. The owner of A knows this fact, but sells the item to a customer anyways.
So doesn't this mean that the owner of Store A is purposely deceiving his customer for his own good? He could've told the buyer that Store B is selling the same item for a lower price, but chose not to.
Since he is deceiving another so that he can make money, isn't it morally wrong?
Please share your thoughts
So let's say that the owner of Store A is selling an item at a higher price than Store B, and he knows that the Store B's price is cheaper. The owner of A knows this fact, but sells the item to a customer anyways.
So doesn't this mean that the owner of Store A is purposely deceiving his customer for his own good? He could've told the buyer that Store B is selling the same item for a lower price, but chose not to.
Since he is deceiving another so that he can make money, isn't it morally wrong?
Please share your thoughts




























