The mother not being able to take a tablet is also a violation of her right to do as she wishes with her own body. I've also been addressing them below.
The affect of the tablet on the mother's body doesn't matter. The purpose of the tablet is to poison the fetus in order to kill it, which is a violation of the fetus' ownership of its body.
There was consent.
Fetuses don't consent to being killed.
Because she wants to do as she wishes with her own body, and she wants to get rid of the parasite growing inside of her?
Her property rights end where the property rights of others begin. She cannot kill someone for trespassing with no due process - that is a violation of the property rights of the fetus.
Abortion does affect the mother's body. It may require an incision for one.
Abortion refers to the killing of the fetus, don't back off and say that abortions are really about just making incisions on in the mother's body.
Your argument was that the mothers end was to rid herself of the responsibility. I demonstrated that that was not the only end. Remember you said killing, not the removal of trespassers was the goal. But in fact, the goal was the removal of trespassers and the desire to avoid responsibility, and that could only be satisfied by abortion.
You can't kill someone actively or passively when you invite them on your property. If I invite you to my house and drop you through a trapdoor into a 20 foot pit, my property rights become limited by your property rights. I can't fill the pit with concrete, throw a grenade in the pit, or leave you there to starve. That would be violating your property rights because the only reason you are in a perilous situation is because I conciously put you in that situation. I must respect your ownership of body.
It can be affected by licenses. If I asked you to kill me because I was in agonizing pain at the end of my life, that seems acceptable to me, even though it is killing another person because it is not a violation of their ownership of body.
Fetuses can't give consent, so there is no situation in which the fetus gives consent to be killed. Your license example means nothing.
They don't during unprotected sex, which is when the hypothetical to grant an implied license occurred. A fetus obviously exists after unprotected sex, but the hypothetical occurs before the doing of the act, since the doing of the act is the one which you claims constitutes consent from the mother (to harbour a potential fetus).
Again, at no point does any such license come into play when violating the existing fetus' ownership of body.
Here's $100. Should you donate it to X charity or Y charity. What universality principle applies in that situation?
Property ownership is a right, not a moral situation. You aren't even setting up something that can be an analogy at all. Try harder please, this is pathetic.
For the record, I do not accept that morality is determined by universality per se. As an egoist, the standard is, is x action in your rational self-interest.
I'm done arguing with you since you don't even have a universal standard for morality. It's in my rational self interest to mug someone and kill them if I can get away with it, that does not make it moral.
Universality determines morality.
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