- Joined
- May 14, 2017
- Sythe Gold
- 241
- Messages
- 587
I understand that if you bet $1 1000 times, you will end up with $0 profit, with 500 losses and 500 wins.
Can someone explain to me what happens when you throw in the variance of bet sizes?
For example... 219 of the bets are $1, 486 are $3, and 295 are $5.
Assuming 50/50 odds
Can someone explain to me what happens when you throw in the variance of bet sizes?
For example... 219 of the bets are $1, 486 are $3, and 295 are $5.
Assuming 50/50 odds

























































