Ok I dont really know what section to put this under as I need help to prove to someone that if I bet on a dice from 0.00 to 99.99 that 10.89 or over would not be 1.01x payout even with it having to be same odds as 55x2
My reasoning: 100 rolls of 1M @ 1.01x payout chance of winning = 89%, so chances are you'd win 89x = 890k (1,000,000 x 1.01 = 10,000 per win)
chances of losing = 11% so 11 rolls = 11m
pretty sure thats at least 90% odds in whoever owns the dice favour.
Apparently i'll make a fool out of myself for trying to help him fix his odds
(I am in no way affiliated with BBB, just tried to help him out so odds are correct)
My reasoning: 100 rolls of 1M @ 1.01x payout chance of winning = 89%, so chances are you'd win 89x = 890k (1,000,000 x 1.01 = 10,000 per win)
chances of losing = 11% so 11 rolls = 11m
pretty sure thats at least 90% odds in whoever owns the dice favour.
Apparently i'll make a fool out of myself for trying to help him fix his odds
(I am in no way affiliated with BBB, just tried to help him out so odds are correct)


























