Objective Moralism

Discussion in 'Something For All' started by Sythe, Jan 27, 2008.

Objective Moralism
  1. Unread #61 - Jan 28, 2008 at 7:34 PM
  2. Cruel__Machine
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    Objective Moralism

    It's only self-contradictory if he recognizes his wants and/or statement as having meaning. Him making the statement doesn't imply that... he could be making the statement for irrational reasons or perhaps he believes that not making a statement is equally as meaningless.
    Many people find their lives to be meaningless, as everyone's consciousness ultimately becomes nothing... and their days have accomplished nothing save it be the prolonging of other meaningless lives. But the mere act of living out their lives doesn't make their beliefs self-contradictory, because not living their lives is equally meaningless.
    It all stems from that.
     
  3. Unread #62 - Jan 28, 2008 at 11:25 PM
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    Objective Moralism

    The statement remains self contradictory because it is a statement.

    So, based on oxford definitions, we may truthfully state that:
    1. 'Expressive' is an adjective which describes the meaningfulness (or the quality of meaning) of something; and

    2. The noun 'Expression' denotes the result of expressing, or being expressive.
    Therefore:

    3. The noun 'Statement' can be accurately defined as 'the definite or clear result of the action of expressing something in speech or writing'; and

    4. The noun 'Statement' can be accurately defined as 'the definite or clear result of an action or state, having the attribute of meaningfulness (or the quality of meaning), as applied to something (a subject), put in to speech or writing.



    Thus proving that the statement 'What humans want is meaningless' is a self contradiction.

    The statement has meaning, by its very definition. You want to make the statement. Therefore what you want is to communicate meaningfully. Therefore the statement 'what humans want is meaningless' is contradicted by your desire to make the statement in the first place.

    I hope that clears that up.
     
  5. Unread #63 - Jan 29, 2008 at 1:52 AM
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    Objective Moralism

    Well, a statement is not a "thing", per se. It is an abstract concept that declares something.

    But, no matter. The way you are arguing is all very well and good in terms of human existence, yet let's try analyzing the logic behind the statement "what humans want is meaningless" without referring to the imperfect statement maker. In other words, let's argue in terms of logic, and not humans.
     
  7. Unread #64 - Jan 29, 2008 at 2:24 AM
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    Objective Moralism

    Impossible. For there to be a debate two or more people must exist to debate it. Everything stems from that. To deny the root truth of all truths is to reject rational debate outright.

    It is the nature of logic and truth that you cannot make an argument on a false premise and expect the conclusion to be true. Therefore, if you make a logical argument with the premise that a logical argument can be made without a person (or consciousness) to make it, it is already false. The premise is false therefore the conclusion can not be expected to be true.
     
  9. Unread #65 - Jan 29, 2008 at 3:01 AM
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    Objective Moralism

    I believe that an argument can "exist", so to speak, without any humans believing in it. Logic is not suddenly invalided by the technicality of nobody following it. To state that it is impossible to show my my assertion is logically invalid means just that: It cannot be disproved.
     
  11. Unread #66 - Jan 29, 2008 at 6:27 AM
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    Objective Moralism

    You have a narrow minded view of logic.
    Logic is only the technical form of reasoning, given two or more premises, from one fact to another.

    The premises must, however, be true for the conclusion to be valid.

    If I were to say: "monkeys are one inch tall, pink, and smell like terpintine." I can form a perfectly valid set of logical reasoning based on that premise, but it is inevitably a waste of time, because any conclusion I draw from a premise which is absolutely false will be invalid. The conclusion may still be true, but that would not be because you have put forward a rational and consistent argument based on true premises. It would be merely co-incidence.

    So, your logic may be perfectly valid, if it is encapuslated in your mind and you have never spoken a word of it, but it does not make the conclusions valid. Conclusions are only valid, and of absolute truth, when the premises are valid. One of the premises or 'assumptions' you make when you begin an argument is that you are arguing with someone. If you are not then your conclusion is invalid.

    To recap:
    When you put forward an argument, you attach to the argument a number of additional premises which are understood but not explicitly stated. Those premises you may refer to as assumptions, but the are necessarily premises of the logical argument as well.

    These are premises such as:
    You speak english, I speak english, and we both understand eachother.
    We are both able to communicate in a meaningful way.
    Truth is absolute and therefore there is a reason to be arguing in the first place.
    I am not simply a figment of your imagination because arguing with yourself is irrational, as arguments are debates between two or more people.
    We both exist, and are both alive, and are both conscious, and both have free will.

    And so on.

    Whenever you actually take your argument from your thoughts and turn them into language, that is: start a debate. You attach all of these premises (and more) to your argument. It is perfectly valid for me to point out that your argument contradicts an implicit premise.

    And this is actually entirely essential to epistemology; the study of knowledge.

    To argue outside of this scope is to argue irrationally and without the essential motive to determine truth from falsehood; knowledge from opinion.
     
  13. Unread #67 - Jan 29, 2008 at 9:21 AM
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    Objective Moralism

    NOTHING can be applied to the entire human population. Perhaps the modern world is a diffrent story but if you look into all the tribes/civilizations that existed and still exist today, you can see that they live by a completely diffrent 'moral code' then us. You can't group the entire population of Earth under one set of moral beliefs.
     
  15. Unread #68 - Jan 29, 2008 at 4:13 PM
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    Objective Moralism

    That's part of the point that these two have been trying to hammer out.

    The fact that you can't apply the morals of one culture to another.

    Pointing out the contradictions inherent in such things etc, etc, etc.
     
  17. Unread #69 - Jan 29, 2008 at 4:53 PM
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    Objective Moralism

    I have been doing what Sythe has cautioned against: Disputing the conclusion even after I accepted the premises! That is illogical, and a silly thing to do.

    I reject the premises:

    Why don't I have that right?

    Let us assume that the Libertarian goal has been achieved. The world is an anarchist state, nobody act against each other, natural disasters are dealt with through charity, etc.

    Consider Tom. Tom is, to all eyes, a hardworking member of society who does his fair share. He appears to be a model, upstanding person. However, every night, Tom steals thousands of dollars from successful corporations. The corporations do not collapse, their bottom line is not affected, and nobody is the wiser. Society continues on as normal. Why is it morally wrong for Tom to do this, given that his actions do not reflect the condition of society as a whole? Certainly, if all people acted that way, society would collapse, but he is the only one.
     
  19. Unread #70 - Jan 29, 2008 at 10:11 PM
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    Objective Moralism

    You have claimed that nothing can be applied to the entire human population.

    I give you an example of a set of rules which can: medical science.
    Medical science is optional but that does not make it subjective.
    I have now proven your proposition to be incorrect.
     
  21. Unread #71 - Jan 29, 2008 at 10:18 PM
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    Objective Moralism

    I am not going to argue with you unless you accept this basic definition as a premise of the debate:


    Morality is defined as universally preferred behaviour within the species of homo sapiens sapiens. That is: An action that is moral is universally preferred within the human species. An action that is immoral is universally unpreferred within the human species. Universal meaning that there are very few exceptions, with those exceptions being cases such as psychopaths.


    If you don't agree to accept the above then the argument is pointless; You are free to start you own thread to debate the definition of morality.
     
  23. Unread #72 - Jan 29, 2008 at 10:40 PM
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    Objective Moralism

    If that is the definition to be used, then I fully accept your argument. Stealing is then immoral, though perhaps it's not the same immorality that many people conceive of when they hear the word. But, no matter.

    This argument then basically follows the negative form of the "Golden Rule", as Confucius puts nicely: "Do not do unto your neighbor what is hateful to you."

    But, we cannot consider pain to be a universal negative, for there are those who take pleasure from it. There is probably a psychotic condition for every universal negative where the sufferer experiences it as a positive.
     
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