Question about useless product clause and TWC's

So, while reading through some TWC removal appeals, I noticed that a lot of people get a TWC for attempting to buy RS gold for say, $.10 over market price.

I don't understand how, using a quote from the Staff-User interaction rules, "selling candy wrappers for $1000 each is allowed". Wouldn't that be nearly the same exact thing? Or should the person buying a candy wrapper for $1000 receive a TWC because he is paying substantially over market price.

 

Yeah the person paying $1,000 for a wrapper would get the TwC because no one in their right mind would do that, and we'd just assume that they're scamming. People can sell for whatever-the-hell price they want, so long as we don't see that they're offering to buy the same thing for more than they're selling it for (read on).

When it comes to gold, TwC's are given usually for 2 reasons:

A. Paying significantly more than very-trusted people sell gold for
B. Paying more for gold than they themselves offer to sell it for

 

Hmm, alright. Still seems a bit sketchy to me, but it is not for me to decide.
Thank you for explaining it to me! You can close this thread now if you like.

 

I just wanted to add to Videos post - Have a look in the Report a Scammer section at all the reports made against gold sellers, and have a look at the sellers prices. They're all higher. Obviously there is a link to this and I agree that the best thing to do is be proactive and not ban them, but award them a TwC.

 

Wouldn't it have to be "BUYING a candy wrapper for $1000"?

And yea, it's a pretty obvious TWC if you see someone buying gold for $0.55 each while the goldseller in the next thread is seling it for $0.48.

 

Cloased per OP's request.