Edit: For the contract issue, and whether it's voluntary or not.
We need to apply the law of the excluded middle. Also, if there is coercion involved, then the actions are not truly voluntary.
So, question: Is the signing of the contract voluntary (truly, entirely, absolutely voluntary, if there is any bit of coercion involved, then it is non-voluntary, not necessarily involuntary).
I just need to show that there is a bit of coercion in the process, which would render the decision not voluntary. The fact of the matter is, there are laws, which the government enforces irrespective of whether you agree or disagree with the law. A person, if he wants to start a business must register with the government because it was a law. If he disagree, he must still register or punishments because he broke a law (that he did not agree to). So, that's the first bit of coercion: You must follow the law, or, you must not disobey the law. The law classifies as institutionalised coercion. It is not in dispute that the government uses intimidation to get people to follow the law right? Namely, if you do not follow the law you will be punished. It's like me saying if you do not give me your lunch money, I'll beat you up. Anyway, since that bit of coercion exists, then the actions of mine are not voluntary.
Out of curiosity, how does the government make people follow it's laws?
The last thing is that, we need to speak in concretes. The government is just a group of people (there are buildings involved but...). This group of people has the legal right to initiate force, it makes laws and if people break them, they are punished.
So, why do the rules of this group of people have to be followed?
Why can't I make make my own rules, and punish people who do not follow them?
Why can this group initiate force, but another group cannot?
Who's going to 'watch the watchers? If humans are greedy/bad/powerhungry, they will typically gravitate to positions of power; how can we have greedy/bad/powerhungry people rule us?
It'd be nice if you could answer these questions individually please, I'll try go about this a different way (though I'll likely fail).
Here are my answers:
1. The rules of that group of people shouldn't have to be followed, unless you voluntarily consent to follow them. This consent must be formal in the sense that it is conscious, a contract, even a verbal one, or something (it cannot be 'implied').
2. You can't because those people did not voluntarily consent to be governed by your rules. You would be initiating force on them.
3. They shouldn't be allowed to, because the initiation of force is morally wrong.
4. It is folly to claim that humans are bad (being general), therefore they must be governed. Because, there will be bad people governing good people. Furthermore, bad people typically tend to be power-hungry, and they will naturally gravitate to a position of power, so you have very bad people governing good people. It is essentially saying that because humans can be bad, something that can be bad must govern those that can be bad because they can be bad. It is nonsensical. (There is a more coherent explanation of this in that book I was talking about). Actually, it's accepted that this is a problem with government, nothing watches the watchers, only anarcho-capitalism recognises the significance of the problem, and attempts to solve it.
(Just cut anything out below dealing with this contract situation so we can save space).
It's legal to ask them if you can leave to avoid paying taxes.
It's also legal for them to deny you that right to leave, in principle.
Look, if you don't have your passport, you will find it very hard to leave. If you do, they can in principle still prevent you from leaving, all in the name of national security.
Then you mixed things up, because we're not talking about owning yourself - we're talking about property rights.
What does people walking have to do with property rights? Property rights is merely an extension of owning yourself, it's just that you own the effects of your labour. If you pick up a stick, you can say I own this stick. If use many sticks to make a house-like strucutre, you can say, I own this house. If you say hey I'll mow your low of $20, then you have sold your labour for the purposes of obtaining the $20, which you now own. It has nothing to do with mexicans walking around near you...
Cherry-picking. Care to list the benefits of fiat money? Or do you want to use barter instead?
This is not cherry picking, I said there were negative effects, you said they don't compare to barter...
Benefits: It's more convenient, and can allow wealth to be created easier.
So, you agree that it's okay to subjectively price the way we pay for money?
If someone wants to trade cars for chairs, tables for statues, books for paper, or things for money, I do not care. Trade is trade, money is a medium of exchange, a common one at that. That's how trade works, people value things differently.
If you are against one monopoly, then you are against all monopolies. An absolute statement. The burden on me to disprove it is to find one counter-example. Replace monopoly with 'woman'.
If you are against monopolies you are against all monopolies.
If you are against women, you are against all women.
Sounds right to me (woman is singular, monopolies is plural, I'm against all monopolies, plural, not just one, singular). Now, you can add a caveat on that. I'm against most women, or these women. If you do not specify, Analytically, you are against all women.
If you are against one woman, then you are against all woman.
Ellen Degeneres is one woman.
If you are against Ellen Degeneres, then you are against all woman.
I am against Ellen Degeneres. Does this mean I'm against all woman? Nope - I love my mom, my sister, Jessica Alba, Mila Kunis, etc.
You've equivocated a plural with a singular.
Maybe not the best way to put it - but I'm sure you get the gist. It's a hasty generalization.
Not at all.
Business theory =/= real life. At least not necessarily.
What? They try to explain real life phenomenon. It's like saying Evolution =/= real life. Or subjective theory of value =/= real life...
You prefer barter over fiat currency?
Don't create a false dilemma, I prefer neither. You can have money without fiat currency.
I hear of even better stories in Syria! But there's less freedom, I believe.
Thank you!
I'm really interested actually, I'm finding it a little hard to believe the staunch difference between the media's' (which obviously is a proponent of propaganda) representation and actuality.
There's always something behind something. When do we stop?
We didn't go back so far though, and by cause we are also talking about some form of accountability. So, businesses are forced to do x. Who are they forced by? They are forced by statute laws, Who creates statute laws? Government.
It can still be done, so there's no 'forcing' being done against your will here. If you argue against this, then the initiation of force is vague. More on this later when we reach the 'reformed infrastructure'.
Tax evasion can also be done, it's just very very risky when the pen hits paper.
Why do we have governments?
Originally, it was protect the rights and liberty of the people. It is also probably out of the common belief, that humans are bad/greedy/chaotic, that we needed governance. Now remember, a government can exist without initiating force. It's against the definition (because governments all initiate force), but if a government didn't initiate force, we'd have no reason to call it government.
Sonoma Mountain Elementary School does not exist - only people exist in that building that is abstracted to Sonoma Mountain Elementary School.
Correct.
It's nice theory. But the fact is, it's working.
A statement is not an argument. Also, you might have a skewed definition of working. Is poverty going down? Ok, according to your statistics, it is. How about the lower class?
Not really, your parents kind of make you go to school. Even you were saying that before.
I was assuming this was a private school. In the case though, yes, the initiation of force is behind it all. You have to remember though, the initiation of force has to have someone against that use of force. If I already want to go to school, then it's voluntary. If I didn't want to go to school however, then it's involuntary.
So, perhaps when we blame the government, we should blame the people who passed the bill for tax laws?
People, by that, I mean people not trained in the law shouldn't be contributing to the law making process. It's like how non-trained people should't be performing surgery. Popular opinion =/= the most logical outcome. Also, call government what it is: people.
I agree - why don't we ban alcohol or cigarettes? Either we ban them, or legalize marijuana. That's how I see it. Also, you're claiming some drug dealers might see this as a good thing - subjectivity. Finally, you're simplifying it (as logic always does). I trade x for y. Let's take a man selling guns. I trade a gun to a normal person for money - that's fine. I trade a gun to a person for money, knowing the person has psychological disorders and could perhaps cause mass murders - that's not fine. I think you'd agree. Logic disregards the scenario. It's useless. Your 'logical statement' implies trade is always fine. It's not.
Trade is trade. In your scenario, should the gun person have done that? No. Does that mean we need gun control? No. Does this example show that trade isn't trade? No.
You did. I told you that you cannot leave the country if you are a criminal, and have the potential to harm other lives. You asked (after mocking me for a bit) about victim-less crimes. It sounded rhetorical. If the question was not rhetorical, then excuse me. But yeah, it just means my initial point was right.
I was being dead serious about victim-less crimes. I don't believe people are criminals because fuck or watch people screwing.
We're both assuming things hypothetically then. You think people would help. I don't. I have personal experience - this is of course, not sufficient. But this is all hypothetical anyways. How can we even debate it?
Ok, we have a problem. Do you think it's ok to coerce people into solving that problem, or let people voluntarily solve it?
http://mises.org/journals/jls/21_2/21_2_1.pdf
". Contrary to Okun, public income redistribution agencies are estimated to absorb about two-thirds of each
dollar budgeted to them in overhead costs, and in some cases as
much as three-quarters of each dollar. Using government data,Robert L. Woodson (1989, p. 63) calculated that, on average, 70 cents
of each dollar budgeted for government assistance goes not to the
poor, but to the members of the welfare bureaucracy and others serving the poor. Michael Tanner (1996, p. 136 n. 18) cites regional studies supporting this 70/30 split."
Look. Democracy is popular soverignty. Majorty of people want the poor looked after. When state goes, do you think most people will suddenly change their views? I doubt it. Given their increased income, and the relatively more cost effective nature of private charities (see above), I'd say it would be easier to fill the gap welfare brings.
This is not what I meant by efficient. I meant that a charity does not have as much workload as correcting the infrastructure of an entire country. They simply focus on one niche. Furthermore, the profit charity makes may be secretive - they do not tell others if they take profit.
I don't think it matters whether they make a profit or not. In a free market, you'll have many charities. People will only give to the most reputable, and the most reputable are likely to make the least profit.
At least poverty is improving. In some places (the USA), it's improving a great deal.
This may be interesting:
http://mises.org/daily/1126
Question. Assume you're in a free market. A new bridge is being built in the area. Assume it's against your will to pay for said bridge. You voluntarily do not pay for it. According to your 'perfect' free market, you would be one of the few that didn't pay for it, so there would be social stigma against you. Isn't social stigma a type of force being initiated on you? You would feel pressure to pay for it, or pay for the next bridge.
No, social stigma refers to negative sanctions (
http://www.sociology.org.uk/p2s5an2.htm), so it's not an initiation of force (dependent obviously on the sanction, a frown is a negative sanction). Whether you should contribute to the bridge would depend on your contracts, and a whole variety of factors. If you are in a gated community, and they want to build a bridge, and you use that bridge, you should pay. If you do not use that bridge you say hey, I don't use this bridge. People probably won't negatively sanction you for that.
And technology just expands possibilities, which also expands the amount of money you will have to pay.
Technology increases productivity, standard of living, quality of life (by making the production process less labour intensive) , and so on. By virtue of higher quality good or service, yes, you'll pay a higher price. This doesn't sound unreasonable. If a man's productivity (I'll be arbitrary) is 5, as in he mows 5 lawns in an hour, and another man's productivity is 10, it's reasonable to pay the man with a productivity of 10 more.
Tolls would operate based on the private enterprise that owns the street. The street is no longer public - it's private. They need to make profit. Tolls will be charged.
Not necessarily, I've shown examples below in a gated community. Remember, a mall is a private enterprise, are you charged on entry, or for using the toilets? No, I wonder why?
And I'm not sure that they wouldn't charge for their services. What kind of business would put money to build a bridge - for free?
A bridge makes getting from a to b a lot easier. Prior to the bridge being built, you would be unable to get from a to b. Assuming this bridge is just an entrepreneur trying to save the extra 20 minutes most people would have to commute to get to their destination, he might build that bridge all by himself, and charge a toll. This seems perfectly reasonable, if you don't want to use the bridge, use the method you've always been using.
If this is in a gated community, and everyone wants a bridge, then those that use it would likely contribute. If they don't then a bridge doesn't get built, it's that simple. Clearly they have competition between wants. They want to keep their money more than building a bridge, which is perfectly fine.
Exactly! They wouldn't have the right to use the private property anymore. So guess what that means? They can't drive! Now, they're in a hole - they NEED to drive. What happens? They're FORCED to pay the tolls. Initiation of force. Didn't you say that was immoral?
They don't have the right to use other peoples private property without their freely given consent. If they have a car, they can drive. If they don't, and no one wants to lend them one, they can't. Also, I don't see how paying tolls is an initiaton of force, you don't seem to understand what it means. A person charging you from using their private property is not initiating force.
It could happen. All I need is one counter-example to debunk an absolute statement.
Right, but you haven't done it satisfactorily. Look at Einstein's theory of relativity and Newton's laws of motions. Einstein's explained the world better, that doesn't mean we threw Newton's laws out, to the contrary, it's still widely used in engineering.
Adding freely is clever, but makes the definition useless now. Why? Because, for things like improving infrastructure, I doubt you'd ever get a CONSENSUS where people 'freely' give their consent.
It doesn't concern those people?
One example, as you said, is social stigma.
Social stigma is not an initiation of force, it's just a voluntaryist principle where people do not associate with people they do not want to associate with because of thier actions.
Another, is that they won't be able to use the roads to get where they need - they're essentially forced into paying to use them. Some people may freely consent - others won't. The free market won't solve the problem of 'initiation of force'.
That's silly. I need to use your private property, well ok, I'll let you use it for $5, how the hell is that the initiation of force.
Freely essentially means without coercion.
What? Just judge if the scenario is moral or immoral. That's all I ask of you.
That depends, who owns the road? It matters due to property rights. If the so called government owns the roads, then the police have the right to, because they are removing the man for trespass. If it is a private road, then the police have no right to, however, I have the right to, and I can delegate it to the police. Is force used? Yes, but it's retaliatory force, I'm not initiating force, the man is by trespassing.
Morality is not subject 100% to logic. Logic is a way of knowing, but it's not the only one. Also, not necessarily are any other truths we perceive subject to 100% logic (I can think of possibly one now, being math). This is the theory of knowledge.
We're trying to gain knowledge about reality. Reason which encompasses empirical evidence and logic so far, the only way to. Also, why can't logic discover morality? Is morality illogical?
You can use logic to debate subjective issues. Example: You think all girls are beautiful. Objection: I find one counter-example where you believe a girl is ugly. Conclusion: Your initial statement is incorrect. That's what I'm doing, no?
Yes, your methodology is fine.
You made an absolute claim ('initiation of force' is always wrong), and I'm giving you counter-examples, where I'm asking what YOU think of the counter-example. Are I not asking you if the examples are moral/immoral? Irregardless of how you judge them - I'm asking for YOUR opinion in the end.
I know, and I've yet to see a satisfactory counter example. You are conflating the initiation of force with (a) force in general, and (b) retaliatory force, or (c) defence of others. They are separate concepts.
Do you think Julia is beautiful? It is a statement. It is subject to the law of the excluded middle. She can either be beautiful, or not beautiful (ugly).
Wrong, you created a false dilemma. The law of the excluded middle is this: a or non-a. She can not be beautiful, yet still be attractive, the two concepts to not preclude one another.
She can't be 'okay', 'average looking', 'decent', etc. She cannot have days where she looks beautiful (with makeup), and days where she doesn't (without makeup). You see the problem? Logic keeps a lot of these details out, when in the real world, they exist, and should be considered. Otherwise, I just consider that unfair.
A decent attempt, but you misunderstand the difference between a false dilemma and the law of the excluded middle.
Law: a or non a.
She is beautiful or non-beautiful (NOT NECESSARILY UGLY).
False dilemma:
She is beautiful or ugly.
She is not beautiful.
Therefore she is ugly.
WRONG FALLACIOUS!
Is beauty subjective? Yup. I argue that morality (actually, let me use another term - what we view as good or bad, as that's really what's relevant here) is subjective too.
I don't think you've made a strong case for it, considering your morality is based more or less in emotions.
This is irrelevant to statism. I gave you the scenario - there's a man running naked on the street. The street belongs to everyone - it's public. No 'trespassing' here. The police initiate force on him and force him back into his house. Do you believe this is moral or immoral? You implied you believe it was moral in your previous post - I don't even know why I have to ask again.
You haven't given me the whole scenario.
A man is naked on my property. I can have him removed for trespass. NOT INITIAITON OF FORCE.
A man is naked on public property. Whoever 'owns public proprety' can have him removed for trespass. NOT INITIATION OF FORCE.
Since government is seen as the owner of public property, and the police servants of government, it's fine to remove him for trespass. Using force to remove him is RETALIATORY FORCE, not INITIATING FORCE.
He's not trespassing - this is a public park. Being an expectation doesn't diminish the fact that the whole scenario could either be moral or immoral. There's still initiation of force from the police - you said this in a later point.
Ok, then what the police are doing is immoral.
So, we argue that goodness or badness does not exist? Just as abstract concepts? I'm fine with that.
So, you are a nihilist? Be honest.
Do you think you will ever achieve an objective truth for what you're asking?
Sort of . I believe there is an optimal way to live your life, which exists objectively. Obviously that optimal way differs from person to person, but there will be common principles shared among everyone, for example, honesty, productivity.
Remember, engaging a debate about morality, one must presuppose that morality exists. If it exists, then it exists objectively, because it can only exist in reality.
Exactly, by definition. Definitions could be wrong. I can agree it's objective if you say, "The sky is this wavelength!" But I cannot agree that it's objective that the sky is blue - Sean, the color blind guy, think it's red, and I don't want to commit the appeal to popularity fallacy. However, I would agree with you that the sky is blue, even though, it is essentially subjective. Meaning that it's not entirely nonsensical to talk about subjective phenomena.
We are talking about the same God damn things. You fail to understand that. We are just using different symbols to represent the same god damn thing.
Reason can be false. This is me - 2000 years ago. I used my perception - the Earth looked flat. That information went to my reasoning - I assumed the Earth was flat (incorrect reasoning). Lots of people agreed with me. The few that didn't, I ignored (similar to how we ignore color blind Sean). However, reality is, the Earth is round. But, through the thought processes you mentioned, I made a mistake - and gained incorrect knowledge. I admit it was unnecessary for me to elaborate as such. I'm sure you know this!
http://www.importanceofphilosophy.com/Epistemology_Reason.html
Also, you first have to prove that morality exists - not that it's an abstract concept. Abstract concepts can be subjective, however.
The fact you engaged in this debate already presupposes it's existence. I don't particularly want to get into a debate over whether morality exists. If you think it doesn't, then you are a nhilist, and everything you've said in this debate doesn't represent your true view.
No, morality is supposed to answer this question - what is good/bad? What is right/wrong? It's in its definition.
If we want to live a good life, we should live a moral life. Thus, morality is a guide as to how we should live our life. If we live an immoral life, we live a bad life. If we live a moral life, we live a good life. Historically, morality arsoe from the question: how should we live. I could be wrong, but that's my undestanding.
Empirically - am I allowed to use empirical proof now, or must I still stick with logical proof?
Empirical is fine xD.
Want to hear something funny? Isaac Newton's 3 laws - we all know them. These 3 laws are only proved empirically - there is no logical proof of them whatsoever! No math, no logic, nothing!
O, no no no. We used reason to integrate everything, that's how we gain knowledge. Disagree?
Get some empirical evidence. Try gain knowledge without logic, or anything else, just the empirical evidence. It is impossible.
So, initiating force is always wrong (you have agreed to this). So, intrinsic values exist. So, that's contradictory to something you said before (that you reject intrinsic values).
I see where you are coming from, but not necessarily. Initiating force is always wrong because it violates property rights, not because it is intrinsically wrong. They function the same way, but it's a subtle distinction.
If you initiate force on the naked man (grab him so he stops running), you will not be punished. If you call the police, you will not be punished, yet you'd be the one who is 'initiating force', as you are the one who brought the matter to the police's attention in the first place. People don't normally initiate force because they're scared to take direct responsibility. But you can if you want. And it does happen.
Punishment is based on laws, laws by their very nature are an opinion that is enforced with a gun. If you break the law (disagree with it), you will be met with force by virtue of the enforcement. This is why the police are called enforcement agencies, they enforce the laws, and they usually enforce it with guns.
Do you hear what you're saying? You're saying it's immoral for police to pull a naked man off the streets, or away from the park when he's masturbating. Come on. This is the problem when you just focus on one thing - 'initiation of force'. You have to look at the entire scenario. 'Logic' is hindering you from the details.
The problem only exists in an illogical society, namely, a statist society. It doesn't exist in my society, a logical one. That said, libertarianism is generally the most internally consistent political theory there is. What is a public park? Is it a park where no one owns but everyone can use? Is it a park where everyone owns a bit of it? Is it a park where everyone owns the whole park equally? What is it? If a man masturbates on private property, he can be forcefully removed because of trespass, forceful removement is not an initiation of force. Public parks, by their nature are illogical, so that is why you find the conclusion so unsatisfying. Again you are making statements as refutation without really making a case.
If you're saying 'initiation of force' is immoral PERIOD, you're agreeing to intrinsic values. You disagreed to intrinsic values before. You'd be contradicting yourself.
Wrong, covered above; a pistol and an AK function the same insofar that they both shoot bullets. Are they the same? No. Just because two things function the same way, does not mean they are exactly the same.
Sounds to me that you're bending your definition now. If you're going to consider lying 'aesthetically unpleasant', so it's 'kind of immoral', then go back to the scenario with the mom lying to her son.
Never said it was 'kind of immoral'. Lying to people is not a virtuous characteristic. It's just not immoral because there was no initiation of force. The correct classification is non-moral. Aesthetically unpleasant behaviour however depend more on the context SINCE there is no initiation of force involved. The morality of it also depends on your moral standard.
Also, this is about morality. If someone agreed to being run over a car, is it immoral for the person to actually run over him/her with a car? Let's not forget about euthanasia now. If someone agrees to be killed by drugs, or even by gunshot (aesthetically unpleasant), do you still consider euthanasia immoral?
Euthanasia is not immoral because there is no initiation of force. How is it immoral for a person to voluntarily interact with each other?
If the government asked Bill Gates to leave because they felt that they were being abusive to him, would he say yes? If the answer is yes, then Bill Gates can voluntarily leave. If the answer is no (it would be), then he's okay with it. And you still claim it's slavery. The example still holds.
Why should Bill Gates leave? If I asked you to leave your country, would you? Why when the government (other people) ask someone to leave they get more authority?
You face a problem as well - assuming my mindset is like yours. I said that morality is subjective. If it were objective, I'd be doing calculations. But I don't believe it is. There are no calculations, in the sense you're trying to elicit.
What problem do I face? Also, if there are no calculations, how do you determine whether something is majorly moral. Look at everything, ok, now what? You balance the pros and cons? That's calculations.
Terribly complex is not an excuse to rule it out. You know this.
Right, but Occams razor, especially when we consider you haven't got much to support your assertions.
No one's omniscient - would we ever know the 'true' morality, if it exists? We have to prove it exists too - not just an abstraction.
By engaging in a debate like this you presuppose it exists. Morality exists. It either does, or it doesn't there is no third option. If it exists, then an omniscient being would know about it.
Really, a business dictionary for a philosophical debate? You are not using the philosophical definition of the word values, which, given this is a philosophical debate...
http://www.importanceofphilosophy.com/Ethics_Values.html
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Value_(philosophy)
You ignored what I said. I said that some things in nutrition are obvious - don't eat trans fats, don't overtake a certain vitamin, etc. Obviously, don't drink potassium cyanide is one of those. Although, surely it's possible that someone could drink potassium cyanide and not die. What gives? I thought this was objective! If P, then Q. If you drink potassium cyanide, then you die. Don't forget, one counter-example negates the entire statement - the case for its objectivity.
It depends on the quantity of potasium cyanide you drink (presumably). So, that statement is false.
Look, unless you hope to change the laws of chemistry, you are wrong about nutrition. What happens to the nutrients you put into your body is decided by the laws of nature, NOT your brain. If you think overdosing on Vitamin A will make you healthy, go ahead, reality is not subject to your arbitrary whims.
That is what I mean by objectivity.
It's down to beliefs. Morality leads to values which leads to the definition of values which includes the word 'beliefs'. I would refer to ethical dilemmas again.
And no, the outcome doesn't necessarily have to happen. It could be the intent. If the hot nurse refuses to sleep with me, I'd still consider the entire scenario immoral.
Ok, a retard wanted to help people, but accidently killed them due to his own stupidity/negligence. How would that hold up.
What precisely are you using to evaluate the whole situation? What tips something from being moral, to immoral. You can't say everything, as that's just saying you evaluate the whole situation with the whole situation; a tautology. Are you using your emotions as your moral standard?
When I see a man running naked on the street, I may feel the moral obligation to tell him to go home. Am I enforcing the law?
No. You are interacting with him.
If he was homeless is adding a new element into the scenario. There are a pool of examples. Some of these examples are corroborative to your initial, absolute statement. Some are counter-examples. All I need is one counter-example to prove your statement wrong. I found one. You found an example that corroborates your statement. Who cares? The counter-example still exists.
What? You haven't gotten close to showing how the naked man running around is a counter-example to the initiation of force. You have little understanding over the difference between initiation and retaliatory force, also property rights and trespass.
That's off the point. Do you agree it's morally unacceptable?
I don't think people should be doing that
Ethical dilemmas are 'problems' with morality when we don't know what to do. They result because equally large groups of people have opposing opinions. The answer to why people have a difference of opinion is put down to how they've been socialized in society.
I could argue against P3. Knowledge is not only obtainable by reason - it could be obtainable by perception, language, and, yes, even emotion. This is the theory of knowledge. More on that.
http://www.importanceofphilosophy.com/Epistemology_Reason.html
For the sky, we can - it's a certain wavelength. Now, explain to me how we can determine something is moral/immoral.
We can determine whether something is immoral by whether or not the initiation of force involved. What of actions that are intuitively immoral but no initiation of force is involved. Well, they would be legal for one. For moral? I'm not entirely sure. I've never faced a problem over how I should live my life. I do contest however that we should not initiate force.
Am I denying the wavelength exists? This is COMPLETELY off the point. We're focusing on this sentence - 'the sky is blue'. Not 'the sky is this wavelength'. We say this is objective (the sky is blue), but it's not, because the word blue, which you agree is an abstraction, is in it. Are you not agreeing that an abstraction means that it's being perceived? Didn't we say that the way the brain perceives information could be subjective?
http://www.importanceofphilosophy.com/Epistemology_Definitions.html
The heater is innately machinery with the function of outputting heat. But now, when the heater actually outputs heat, are our definitions of that heat not subjective? "It's too hot!" "It's too cold!"
Our perception of what is heat is subjective i'd think. The actual heat is objective though. It depends on our biological make up, pain threshold, and so on. Some people have better homeostatic mechanisms than others. Some people have incredibly efficient vasodilation, which cools them off better. The stimuli each person is subjected to is the same, but the interpretation of it is (a) determined by biological factors (b) determined by socialisation (c) is all integrated in the brain and out comes perception. Inputs are the same, outputs are different because everyone is different.
Now, you're given a wavelength. "It's blue!" "It's red!" In any case, ignore red. You didn't address something I said - did it occur to you that even for normal people, we could each perceive this wavelength of blue as a different shade of blue? Even if the differences are minimal, they exist. Differences mean it's not objective, though. If I was able to take a picture of what I was seeing through my brain, open it with Adobe Photoshop, and attempt to analyze what shade of blue I was seeing, it could be different than what another person sees.
Yes, but we are referring to the same phenomenon.
So, maybe the wavelength corresponds to a certain correct shade of blue. But how can we ever determine what this correct shade is?
We determine the wavelength?
The better question is if I agree that coercion is always wrong.
The logical inference of someone disagreeing is that they agree that putting guns to peoples head can be morally right and forcing them to do what you want is sometimes morally acceptable.
Why would you complain if there's tangible agreement? If I had terms and conditions, and you agreed to them, no matter what you're circumstance, I expect you to follow them. It's very simple. You're going to tell me 'it was my only option, I was forced'. Well, I don't think a true free market would prevent this either. Go above to infrastructure.
You are just missing the point entirely. Coercion is behind it all. An anarcho-capitalist would prevent this, there would be no state institutionalised coercion. You already agreed with my definition of government. There would be no legal right to initiate force, so any initiation of force will be punished.
Why can some people initiate force and not others?
You force yourself into that maze. You want to sell products in America - a land that was acquired by the founding fathers.
Who owns the house, me, or the government?
Well guess what? These founding fathers made conditions for America. If you accept them, don't complain.
I didn't accept them, there was no contract, they were forced onto me.
If you don't, don't make a business.
It's my natural right to sell the products of my labour.
These are YOUR needs. You're not forced into anything unless you force yourself. What's your solution? We've discussed this - you can freely leave.
Why should I leave. If bandits ransack your town and function like a government, is it fair to say you should just leave? No.
If people initially objected, there'd be no businesses, and surely a reform in the law would occur.
People want to start their own businesses, but they are forced to accept x y and z by the government. You don't dispute this.
But they didn't. You want to rewrite history all for yourself. It's unfair for you to be the only business that's not paying taxes, where the other ones are obliged to because they have already agreed.
Unfair for me to trade?
That's not what I meant. When I say 'given you disagree with porn', it means 'assume you disagree with porn'. Here's something better - replace porn with something you disagree with. Replace it with many things. If you cannot find one thing that works for you, I guess we don't agree. But then read what I said above about the hasty generalization.
Replace porn with taxation.
So in a free market, there are no patents? If I come up with an idea, everyone else is allowed to sell my idea? Excuse me if I didn't understand. I haven't read the eBook you asked for me to read. I'll try to.
Patents mean you own an idea. That's just ridiculous. In a free market, when you get an idea, you'd likely guard it and try to milk it for money. Eventually, people will find out about the idea, and competition will reduce prices. Innovators will keep thinking of new ideas. Many explosions in innovation have occurred without patents, and patents were initially invented to protect and encourage innovation. It's unnecessary. If you come up with an idea, why would you tell others? You wouldn't, you'd probably want to sell it, and you'd do it by being an entrepreneur.
You told me to refrain from empirical proof and provide logical proof. Empirical evidence is not logical proof of the theory of evolution.
Then my bad, use logical or empirical or whatever proof you want.
You don't - hence why tolls would be needed. Something I don't want. Against my will! Don't force me to pay! After all, just driving on a bridge doesn't mean I agree with being charged tolls. Would you not agree - it's similar to something you said before. Don't say 'voluntarily' - many people NEED to drive. I'd be essentially forced to pay.
Wrong, you misunderstand. Private property, you have no right to be on someone elses's private property. Repeat after me: You do not have the right to be on someone else's private property without their freely given (uncoerced) consent. Please, remember that. You don't have the right to drive on someone else's bridge, don't fucking drive on the bridge if you don't want to pay a toll.
And no, you got it wrong with the gated community! Residents often pay for gated communities - and this can be very secretive too (electric bill, water bill, or sometimes, you're just directly required). Read:
http://www.ehow.com/list_5905753_pros-cons-gated-communities.html
Disadvantges, it costs more... It's hard for people to get in... Come on.
Also, there are normally homeowner associations in such communities:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Homeowner_association
Well if you voluntarily decided to live in such a community, don't complain about the rules and regulations.
The people in a gated community may pay because they're rich - plus they want the other benefits associated with being in said gated community (some are essentially even forced to, if they're celebrities).
Celebrities are forced to because they want privacy. No one is initiating force on them, remember this. It's just a competition between their wants.
But in regular society, you will have everyone (including frugal people from the middle class, and the poor) who may NOT want to pay. Don't forget, when you join a gated community, you agree to paying.
You don't have a right to exist in a gated community, it's just an option, one that I'd prefer to live in, and one that would likely arise in an anarchist society. There would be competing social structures. If you demand a community with gun control, then you can choose one that has gun control. There's nothing wrong with this, as every person in the community signed a control that they would not have guns. The same for drugs, prostitution and that apply.
You asked for logical proof of the social contract. But anyways, back to taxation.
I've given empirical evidence of agreeing to pay taxes. I've given many counter-examples to absolute claims that imply taxation is immoral (such as the fact that moral deeds cannot be achieved through immoral means). Those claims were essentially the premise of your argument - and they're absolute. We know that even if one counter-example exists, the absolute claim is incorrect, and the entire argument must either be re-formulated, or dropped.
You have not, it's not my freely given consent. When will you not realize that you are forced to pay taxes. It's a fucking law, you must pay taxes. If you don't you will be thrown in jail. So, everyone puts it in their contract because they are forced to, it's not their freely given consent. The same applies to you, you sign it because there is coercion involved. You simply fail to understand this.
So why do you restrict me from using empirical proof when you can use it for the theory of evolution to prove its validity?
Use empirical proof then, and only empirical proof. Do not use any logic, or anything else when proving the theory of evolution: you can't. You must use reason, otherwise you could not comprehend the empirical evidence.
Is logic the only way of knowing?
Reason is, in my opinion. Refer to my link to what Reason is.
Yup, easy! First, the theory of knowledge says there are 4 ways of knowing: perception, reason, emotion, and language. It's not necessary that all are mutually exclusive - they can all work together. I would never argue that morality is pure emotion - I said it deals with emotions, and of course, language and perception are included. It also deals with reasoning. But emotion is in there - it's hard to make 'proof' for morality because of this.
http://aynrandlexicon.com/lexicon/emotions.html
Actually, read that thing on reason as well (above somewhere).
Also, I want to gain knowledge about reality. Tell me how I can use emotions to find out about evolution? I can't. Tell me how I can use emotions to find out about morality (serious question).
Now, here's an example. There exists a baby. We know a baby has very low reasoning (you would argue they're not rational - I believe you said this before), and very low language, so we're essentially isolating perception and emotion (babies don't lack emotion - we know this). The baby touches a very hot stove - perception. The baby feels pain, and begins to feel sad, and cries (emotion).
Agree (see next for caveat).
The baby learns that the stove is hot (objective truth), and learns to never touch the hot stove again.
The baby knows the stove ilicits a feeling a pain, it is only told that this pain is cold 'hot', would you agree?
Perhaps reasoning was vaguely used in the last step. Fact of the matter is that emotion is included as a way of knowing (a vital one, in this case), and emotion paves the way for subjectivity.
They are a way of knowing they are limited. You cannot use emotions to find out about gravity for example, it simply doesn't work, in fact, I don't think emotions play a part in finding out about gravity, other than perhaps motivating you to find out.
There is one key thing I'd like to say though. The baby is merely associating pain with the hot stove; the association is strong due to one-trial learning. The baby is not actually discovering the stove is hot (it doesn't know what hot is). The baby is only discovering that touching the stove causes pain, and since the baby doesn't like pain, it won't touch the stove again.
We need to ask ourselves. What causes emotions. Then we need to ask ourselves, how can they be used to gain knowledge about the world. You can agree that they can gain knowledge, but to what extent?
I urge you to read this:
http://www.importanceofphilosophy.com/Epistemology_Emotions.html
Let's get to the gist here - I asked for logical proof that self defense is right. With logical proof, your conclusion will be absolute. Do you believe such a logical proof exists? If yes, then that means this scenario is morally right as well:
I punch someone in the face. He uses self defense, and punches me back. I use self defense again, and stab him with a knife. He uses self defense again, and hits me in the face with brass knuckles. I use self-defense, and shoot him. In the end, we were both right! Self defense is ALWAYS right, DESPITE initiation of force being in the scenario.
Wrong. Wrong. Wrong. Retaliatory force. You need to ask yourself. Who started the fight? You don't understand the difference between the initiation of force and retaliatory force. It is a contradiction to both initiate force and defend yourself. The person who first initiated force is in the moral wrong. Also, let's be serious your scenario is morphed, it won't exist in reality... No one is going to put brass knuckles on after being stabbed, and so on.
You see - this is the problem with logical proof. It doesn't focus on the details. You make a judgement for everything, when we know in real life, cases can be really specific. This isn't math. With logic, as I said, we ignore the details, which I believe is inappropriate when we deal with morality.
You misunderstand logic, valid and sound argument means conclusion is always right. You accept this, yet you still say details details details.
You said earlier you wanted logical proof, not empirical proof?
I thought it would be hard to find empirical proof that the social contract existed, you can try if you want though.
"It all comes back to the social contract, it's primary purpose was to legitimise the governments initiation of force on its citizens. You need to prove that (by proof, I mean logical proof, not empirical proof)."
Fine, use empirical evidence to prove the existence of something you agree doesn't exist.
Would you argue that debates against evolution are similar to debates for ethical dilemmas? I think not. 'Smart', 'not delusional' people may share the exact opposite view that you do for an ethical dilemma.
On the presupposition morality exists, they are the same... It's like saying evolution is subjective because it affects organisms differently, yea, but the principle is reproductive success...
I took this part out. I reedited something in:
"Also, you're claiming that empirical evidence is insufficient. We're missing something though - I'm not using empirical evidence to make a case. I'm using them as COUNTER-EXAMPLES to claims you have made. Absolute claims (without logical proof, mind you). If I'm not mistaken, in logic, isn't this more than enough for me to prove what you said is wrong? Read: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Counterexample"
I don't think you've really made a satisfactory counter example.
You're making the claim here - moral deeds cannot be achieved through immoral means (or 'initiation of force' is always wrong). I'm providing counter-examples to that. Irregardless of how I determine if the scenario is moral/immoral, I'm asking for YOUR opinion. You just justify with a different reason why it's moral. In the end, the counter-example is there. It cannot exist if your original premise is absolutely true, yet it does. What does that mean?
The claim that we need to initiate force to stop the initiation of force is a self-contradiciton. That's really, all I was trying to hint to initially.
Can you logically prove crime will be lower? I'm not trying to start an argument, I'm just really interested.
I think my reasoning was pretty consistent, you're welcome to go over it.
Crime is a violation of laws.
If there are no laws.
There is no crime.
Obviously I'm being a smart arse, but, a lot of 'criminals' I think are unjustly labelled criminals. Never mind the empirical evidence support the labelling theory (
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Labeling_theory), that labelling people criminals will actually encourage them to act like criminals as they follow the 'deviant career' pathway.
Wait! You're agreeing to taxes. I thought taxation was theft. Why do you agree to it here?
I'm an anarcho-capitalist, not a minarchist. I don't agree to taxation. Remember, I said hierarchy, and anarcho-capitalist was first. Obviously, the lesser of two evils, big government, high taxes, and small government, low taxes, I'd take the latter.
I didn't copy and paste all of this for the sake of space. Now, I didn't say courts wouldn't exist. I simply asked for you to provide me a method in which they'd get paid. Who would pay the judge? You need to qualify to be a judge - you can't just 'volunteer'.
True, universities would still exist, and judges would be paid a wage by the owner of the business. Judges would still exist remember if the state suddenly vanished, so it's likely they would be hired first, correct?
I don't think private enterprises would make courts - where's the profit to be made? Businesses look for demand - they also look for profit. Unless they hire lawyers and whatnot - things people already pay for in court. Then I can see it working.
Sure they will, the profit to be made is hearing the cases for breaches in contract. It doesn't take much to run a court. A judge, someone keeping records, some security.
Yup, I agree with the fact that it would be used as an attraction. But in the scenario above (gated community), those parks are essentially being funded.
They could be funded by the people because they want them, or the entreupreneur could fund them entirely himself to make the place (a) more attractive, increasing the value of the community, or (b) more enticing to the initial investors. It's like a mall. They make it spanking new beforehand, and during it's existence, they usually upgrade it. Malls that aren't upgraded tend to be of poor quality. In a free market, inefficient and poor quality businesses tend to go bankrupt.
Okay, but this is off the point - who will pay for this prison, or this 'service' of prison you're imagining?
It will be a business. The DRO could pay the business x for doing it. It perhaps could be a charity that wants to rehabilitate people. These are possibilities I'd say.
Yeah but, it's free now. There's an important thing we're missing - firemen go to their jobs everyday. They go through rigorous training. They get paid a salary - not based on every house they put off. This salary is funded through taxes. Now, let's say houses catching fire isn't as common as we think it is - especially in this new society, where people are more educated. This would mean that for firemen, there is a vertical market. The private enterprise would have to charge significantly higher to pay the firemen an appropriate salary, or else the firemen will quit, and work as perhaps a waiter - where they wouldn't risk their lives, and they would make more money.
DROs. You would be covered for fire insurance, so if there is a fire, then it would be paid, so money is not an issue, even if it costs $10,000 for a fire call, the DROs will pay it, it will just affect your insurance premiums which is dependent on your credit ratings which is affected by your actions in everyday life.
This means the 'fireman business' would fail, because there isn't a lot of demand. So, we can lose an important service in the society. This isn't as simple as 'yes, we'll price things down where the consumer will buy for sure'.
Not really, for the reasons mentioned above. There will always be demand where there is supply, it's just a question of where the price is. Presumably, people will take out fire insurance, it's not a hard thing to ask, people take out life insurance for their family when they die!
Fact is, profit has to be made. Tolls will exist everywhere. Do you really want that?
No, you see, look at all the malls. They are all (or most at least) privately owned. How many charge upon entry. What about toilets? Do you have to pay to use them. No, yes, entreupreneurs want to make a profit, but if building a road increases the asset price of the land around you, then they won't care about putting a toll on, because a toll would potentially decrease the price of the land around you.
The tolls are covered in the book. There is just little incentive to put tolls on every single road. Look at gated communities, are there tolls? No. Look at private businesses, are there tolls for going under cover during a rain? No. Will there be slightly more tolls? Maybe, but all in all, I hardly think it's a problem. Even if it were, you already pay tolls through taxes.
If anything, I think a true free market would only get rid of the middle class, and lead to a sharp contrast between the rich and poor. I'm only speaking based on personal experience, but it's something to think about.
There is a problem here. Loosely, there are two types of goods: consumer goods, and capital goods. Capital goods are your infrastructure, they are a means of produciton; they produce other goods. Consumers goods, are stuff like clothes, they are enjoyed by the individuals that use them. What do rich people mostly own? Not 50 billion dollars worth of clothes. They usually own capital goods, and higher quality consumer goods. A man may have a billion dollars, but 950 million of it might be in shares... How does he derive happiness from that? When we take that into consideration, the gap between rich and poor narrows.
It's merely a difference between consumers goods (capital goods benefit all, good infrastructure has flow on effects for all in society). Take consumer goods: cars. You have shit cars, you have lamborghinis. Rich people own shit cars, poor people own bad cars, the middle class own decent cars. What's the difference? (Remember, all the prices of cars will be lower due to deregulation and a free market, so more people will be able to afford better cars, this includes the lower class). The difference really between a lambo and a bad car is perhaps the leather, the brand, the functions of the car, but really it gets you from point a to b. The same can be said for clothes. It may be a bit more silky, a better brand, but really, come on...
To address the issue at hand though, the poor will get richer, people in America are already falling out of the middle class. In a free market everyone can sell their labour, it's a system in society where everyone advocates: a system where the lowest member in society can hope to become the highest. There are no barriers. You are free to let your mind work, and your body work. There are many stories were people that come from x country to y country with nothing are suddenly in the upper class. They let their mind and body work. This is not Marxism, he was incorrect, the bourgeoisie do not want to enslave the proletariat, we want them to do well. There is a harmony of interests involved here, a rising tide lifts all boats, a productive labour force produces more goods, and increases the standard of living. An educated society typically results in less crime. A society that maximises the ability to create wealth is good for all because wealth by it's nature is fundamentally held in capital goods.
The lower, middle, upper class, they are all just abstractions. What exists are people, and what exists are goods. A free market means cheaper goods. A free market means higher wages due to competition and the bidding up of wages to attract the highest quality of labour. A free market gives the opportunity of all to obtain more goods. It is a system which allows the greatest equality of opportunity. It is not a system where equality of outcome will exist. There will be inequalities between the distribution of wealth, but that doesn't mean people won't be happy; everything will be cheaper and of higher quality, the purchasing power of people will increase.
There are two types of poor people involved here: Poor people as a result of their own actions. Poor people as a result of forces out of their control. You are either poor because of your actions or non-actions. If you are poor because of your actions, it means you made bad decisions. Should you be punished, well sure, you made a bad choice to invest in x, your punishment was losing. But now you're poor. You are not entitled to anything, nature owes you nothing, you owe it to yourself. But, there will still be people willing to help you, I for one would, I'm sure others would as well. If you are poor as a result of your non-actions, then people will definitely be inclined to help you. Families, who are already struggling, still look after the mentally of physically incapacitated people. It's just the benevolence in human nature.
I'll try to get to the book. I'm interested about learning more of this 'true free market' you speak of.
The book is more about how an anarcho-capitalist society would work. By nature of being anarcho-
capitalist though, it is a true free market providing those services without any government existing.