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Can someone prove to me how .999...=1

Discussion in 'General Discussion' started by shawty, Aug 8, 2013.

  1. Darkest Dream

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    Can someone prove to me how .999...=1

    When he asked for proof?
     
  2. randomkiing10

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    Can someone prove to me how .999...=1

    It comes so close to 1 that the difference doesn't even matter anymore
     
  3. Imagine

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    Can someone prove to me how .999...=1

    Not true. It is exactly 1.
     
  4. S

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    Can someone prove to me how .999...=1

    The people disagreeing aren't noticing the difference between '0.999...' and '0.999'.
     
  5. millzlevels

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    Can someone prove to me how .999...=1

    This.

    1/3 = 0.333...
    3/3 = 1 / 0.999...

    3/3 is not equal to 0.999, however.
     
  6. jiexidluan

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    Can someone prove to me how .999...=1

    how can .999... = 1?

    The limit as .999... approaches infinite decimals places out would be 1. But does it actually ever touch?
     
  7. Imagine

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    Can someone prove to me how .999...=1

    Yes. I already proved the convergence of the infinite series in an earlier post.
     
  8. Entrr

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    Can someone prove to me how .999...=1

    0.9999999 repeating I'm assuming in this case is not = 1. Here's the example I will be using to prove this. Lets take an easily understood equation.

    1/(x-1) therefore we can assume x-1 =/= 0 because division by zero is impossible. Therefore x can be all values for the number system from (-&#8734;< x < 1) and (1< x < &#8734;) therefore we can get infinitely close to the number 1 for example 0.999 repeating so long as we don't reach one because in this case 1 is a vertical asymptote. So in my opinion 0.99999 repeating does not equal 1.

    If were referring to non repeating .9999s my post is way off its mark and for that I'm sorry.
     
  9. millzlevels

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    Can someone prove to me how .999...=1

    We're talking about "0.999..." Not "0.999"
     
  10. Imagine

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    Can someone prove to me how .999...=1

    No. Several things are wrong with your argument. if f(x) = 1/x-1, f(1) exists -- it is just undefined. Second, how does your example prove that you cannot get to one? I'd just say that f(.999...) is also undefined... Last, you can still get to 1 on the x-axis, which is what you're doing...you just can't get to it if you stay on the line. But then again, you can't get to x = 0 by staying on the graph of f(x) = 1/x.

    Also, this isn't an opinion. This is a fact.
     
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